# 17110 or not?



## BFAITHFUL (Apr 14, 2010)

should I code the following with cpt 17110 or a different code?

attention was then directed to the left cheek area, which had a keratosis.  Seborrheic keratosis was approximately 1cm in diameter over the malar area.  The area was prepped with dilute Betadine solution and draped in a sterile fashion and then anesthetized through the use of injections of 1% Xylocaine with epinephrine local anesthetic solution and an appropriate waiting period was observed an adequate hemostasis.  The lesion was removed through the use of curettage and then the area was cauterized likely with the electrocautery.  Sterile dressing was applied consisting of bacitracin ointment.  

Thansks


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## Lisa Bledsoe (Apr 15, 2010)

Looks like 17000 to me...


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## terryburke (Apr 15, 2010)

I think it should be 17110-benign. I don't believe keratosis is premalignant.
Terry


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## muthershyp (Apr 15, 2010)

Seborrheic keratosis is not considered pre-malignant.  17000 is just for pre-malignancies.  17110 is for destruction of benign lesions by any method.


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## Lisa Bledsoe (Apr 15, 2010)

You are both correct, I misread the initial question.  SK's are benign and not premalignant.


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## ivistour99@hotmail.com (May 6, 2010)

*Ivis M. Fernandez*

I agree with Lisa


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