# Cryoablation of Common Warts



## mbdk1977 (Jul 15, 2008)

I've been in a discussion with my boss about the coding of cyroablation of common warts.  Now the patient has two warts to be treated on the shoulder area.  When i read code 17000 the part that sticks out the most is the statement that it is the destruction of "premalignant" lesions.  Am I incorrect in my understanding that a wart is not a premalignant lesion.  I personally would code this with 17110.  Your thoughts?


----------



## dmaec (Jul 15, 2008)

I would code the 17110 (benign) as well.  I only use the 17000 for pre-maglignant.  I believe it was in 2008 that the code was revised (17110).  I use 17000 for actinic keratoses/pre-malignant.

if you read under the 17003 code - it says, *"for destruction of common warts, see 17110 / 17111"*


----------



## mbdk1977 (Jul 15, 2008)

Hi Donna!  Thank you for pointing out that note, I must have read over it.  



dmaec said:


> I would code the 17110 (benign) as well.  I only use the 17000 for pre-maglignant.  I believe it was in 2008 that the code was revised (17110).  I use 17000 for actinic keratoses/pre-malignant.
> 
> if you read under the 17003 code - it says, *"for destruction of common warts, see 17110 / 17111"*


----------

