# Rectal lesion!!!!!!!!!!!!



## Kevinph84

My Fellow Coders,

I had a patient come in for removal of a rectal lesion. The lesion was grasped, excised, and a suture was placed. The approach was through the anus. 

The path report delivered a diagnosis of "_Polypoid fragment of squamous epithelium and underlying fibrovascular tissue. The differential includes hemorrhoid. Negative for dysplasia or malignancy. Negative for condyloma."_ 

I was searching through CPT and found the following code a as a good candidate:

_*45171* 
Excision of rectal tumor, transanal approach; not including muscularis propria (ie, partial thickness)  

Lay Description 
The physician removes a rectal tumor through a transanal approach. The physician explores the anal canal and exposes the tumor. Report 45171 for a partial thickness excision (one that excludes the muscularis propria) and 45172 for a full thickness excision (including the muscularis propria). The defect in the rectum is closed with sutures. _

Now, the only conflicting issue I have is the diagnosis basically being lesion of the rectum, as oppose to the CPT code stating tumor. 

My question is if the code says tumor and the patient has a lesion, in which the same exact procedure was performed, is it still applicable to use that procedure code?

Thank you all for your help!

Respectfully Yours,


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## MNovoselatz

I feel it's appropriate to use this CPT. I would appeal any denial.


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## amny1212@yahoo.com

Excision of benign lesion; genitalia= 11420 thru 11426


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## slpagel

*Rectal Lesion*

I work for a Colorectal surgeon and we run into this quite offen.  I use 45171 with Icd.9 211.4, 787.99, or 569.49.


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