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Hi,

If anyone know about the rules or guideline for ICD-9 code 790.92 Versus v58.61 in ICD-10 R79.1 versus Z86.718 codes, Please share it. When I can code the 790.92/R79.1 VERSUS V58.61/Z86.718?
 
790.92/R79.1 are for abnormal coagulation lab results without a diagnostic history of a coagulation disorder

V58.61 (ICD-9) is Long-term (current) use of anticoagulants. If you only had an abnormal result on a coagulation test, you wouldn't already be on anticoagulants, let alone on a long term basis.

Z86.718 (ICD-10) is Personal history of other venous thrombosis and embolism. You have to have been diagnosed with the condition n the past to have a history of it. So abnormal test result without a DX would not indicate a personal history of a disorder.
 
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Thank you!!!

Hi CODINGKING!

Thank you so much. You always reply to my post. You explain it very well. You are a true coding king. I always read your post from the time you join AAPC and passed your exam. Thanks once again.
 
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