The Angel Of the South
Guest
I'm reading up on this subject online, and think I almost understand it but not quite. I just want to know how close I am.
If I've figured it out...the key to understanding the issue is that even though it's called "bimalleolar," part of the injury is damage to a ligament, which is on the opposite side of the ankle. The key is also in the word "equivalent." The "bimalleolar equivalent Fx" diagnosis is meant to be all-inclusive of both the fracture and the damaged ligament. Am I right?
I just don't see yet why there isn't any "bimalleolar equivalent Fx" code and so it has to get a different code. In the practicode case that confused me (I think there were two almost identical cases), the pre-operative Dx said bimalleolar equivalent, and the post-op said lateral malleolus. It took me a long time to even mostly understand why.
If I've figured it out...the key to understanding the issue is that even though it's called "bimalleolar," part of the injury is damage to a ligament, which is on the opposite side of the ankle. The key is also in the word "equivalent." The "bimalleolar equivalent Fx" diagnosis is meant to be all-inclusive of both the fracture and the damaged ligament. Am I right?
I just don't see yet why there isn't any "bimalleolar equivalent Fx" code and so it has to get a different code. In the practicode case that confused me (I think there were two almost identical cases), the pre-operative Dx said bimalleolar equivalent, and the post-op said lateral malleolus. It took me a long time to even mostly understand why.