adunlap23
Guru
I am probably making this more complicated than it needs to be, but I want to make sure I am coding the following scenario correctly.
One of our physicians sees a patient for an inpatient hospital consultation. The patent has a finger laceration involving the tendon and septic IP joint. The physician performs arthrotomy and drainage of the finger joint. He documents that he has talked to another surgeon from our practice who will see the patient for follow-up care and plan for a staged reconstruction of the lacerated tendon.
According to CMS guidelines, Transfer of Postoperative care is not covered if "a surgeon opts to transfer postoperative care". Thus, this scenario would not be billed that way?
I'm assuming I would bill the joint arthrotomy and drainage as 26080-54 to indicate the physician is not performing the postoperative care. But then would the second physician just bill regular e/m codes?
One of our physicians sees a patient for an inpatient hospital consultation. The patent has a finger laceration involving the tendon and septic IP joint. The physician performs arthrotomy and drainage of the finger joint. He documents that he has talked to another surgeon from our practice who will see the patient for follow-up care and plan for a staged reconstruction of the lacerated tendon.
According to CMS guidelines, Transfer of Postoperative care is not covered if "a surgeon opts to transfer postoperative care". Thus, this scenario would not be billed that way?
I'm assuming I would bill the joint arthrotomy and drainage as 26080-54 to indicate the physician is not performing the postoperative care. But then would the second physician just bill regular e/m codes?