Our front office staff wrote a new order for physical therapy themselves and faxed it to the referring physician for signature because the original order that came over had a diagnosis code on it that wasn't covered by insurance. They wrote on it "we need the referral diagnosis to match the treatment diagnosis to be covered."
Rules state the order must have the patient's medical diagnosis on it. Therapists are not allowed to diagnosis patients in the state of Michigan, only MD or DOs can. We can't code something just to get it covered! We can't lead someone to a code. They've been told numerous times that they cannot do this, but they continue.
My question is this considered intent to deceive or not? I feel it is because they've been told it's not allowed and why. I think it's fraudulent but I'm being told it's not and just "an educational situation about proper communication."
Am I overreacting??? Compliance makes me nervous.
Rules state the order must have the patient's medical diagnosis on it. Therapists are not allowed to diagnosis patients in the state of Michigan, only MD or DOs can. We can't code something just to get it covered! We can't lead someone to a code. They've been told numerous times that they cannot do this, but they continue.
My question is this considered intent to deceive or not? I feel it is because they've been told it's not allowed and why. I think it's fraudulent but I'm being told it's not and just "an educational situation about proper communication."
Am I overreacting??? Compliance makes me nervous.