Wiki Seroma

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NESmith

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A patient was seen after having a repair of a left inguinal hernia on 02/15/10 he comes back for a post-op visit on 02/25/10 and is found to have a seroma. The doctor under sterile technique aspirated the seroma from the left groin incision. About 40 cc of thin bloddy fluid was aspirated. The doctor wants to bill a 10060 which I think is wrong & that he needs to bill cpt code 10160 even though the cpt code description states puncture aspiration of abscess, hematoma, bulla ro cyst. Is this correct? Thanks
 
Drainage of seromas are not payable during the post op period (assuming the seroma is directly related to the surgical procedure itself). These are considered a normal complication of surgery, and therefore are not separately payable unless it requires a trip back to the OR in order to do it. Don't forget a 58 or 78 modifier in that case.
 
Gared is quite correct. Seroma formation after inguinal hernia repair is somewhat common and is related to the repair. All hernias, inguinal included, have a 90 day global so you cannot charge for the aspiration as you described it. Had it occured outside the global surgery period you certainly could charge for it . It's not fair, but that's the way it is. We see postop mastectomy's often for seroma aspiration and we cannot charge either.
 
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