urbach34@yahoo.com
Networker
I code for a PCP who constantly bills AWV (G0439) with sick visits (99213). I truly feel patients are coming in for their sick visit and he is seeing that it has been over a year since their last AWV, so he goes ahead and tacks it on. I'm not in the office, so I'm not there to see the work that is being done. Maybe he is, in fact, doing all of the work he is billing for, but I thought that a patient had to be scheduled for their AWV. Can someone please clarify this for me? Are there guidelines somewhere that clearly explain what is proper in this situation? I understand that I am able to bill this, I have not gotten any denials on anything. I'm just concerned that it's not ethical. I feel like it's "up selling" the patient on a service they didn't request.
Last edited: