LindsayC
Contributor
I am second guessing myself and need help. I have a physician who is always circling diagnosis of V72.31 with a "Problem Visit" encounter and a 99213 E/M code.
Example: Pt presents for problem related to nine week one day postpartum visit. There to discuss birth control options. Physician performs exam typical of a well woman exam, but no pap obtained. Patient has commercial insurance.
To me, this is a Well visit. But physician is always documenting as "problem visit" with V72.31. So my question is, can you bill V72.31 as a "pelvic/gyn exam" when they are examining for a problem, rather than a WWE?
Thanks in advance.
Example: Pt presents for problem related to nine week one day postpartum visit. There to discuss birth control options. Physician performs exam typical of a well woman exam, but no pap obtained. Patient has commercial insurance.
To me, this is a Well visit. But physician is always documenting as "problem visit" with V72.31. So my question is, can you bill V72.31 as a "pelvic/gyn exam" when they are examining for a problem, rather than a WWE?
Thanks in advance.