mrolf
Guest
What is the correct way to code a non-medicare patient who comes in to the Primary care physician for a pre-op physical requested by the surgeon for clearance for surgery, but the patient is a normal healthy person with no problems other than what is having surgery for (knee scope). We have been billing a problem visit (ex:99214). Is this acceptable. I always receive conflicting answers. The surgeon is getting paid for the pre-op care but the guidelines say (preop physical the day prior or day of surgery). The primary doc is doing this a week to 2 weeks prior to surgery. The surgeon and the primary care physician feel that the family doctor who knows the patient better than the surgeon should be the one to do the pre-op and clearance for surgery. The surgeon says we do not know the patient like the PCP does.
If anyone can give me a definitive answer I can bring to the administrative team would be helpful. T
If anyone can give me a definitive answer I can bring to the administrative team would be helpful. T