jfolz
Networker
Hi all,
I code for an Outpatient Surgery facility and have a question regarding a Positive Cologuard patient. The patient in question has BCBS insurance and the physician has noted that "This visit is a screening due to no current active symptoms and a previous positive Cologuard that was never followed up on".
I know that a positive Cologuard indicates that the "Screening" isn't really a screening anymore, it becomes diagnostic due to the Cologuard using up that screening benefit and becoming an active sign and symptom of it's own...but in a case like this one, how long does that "positive" disqualify the patient from a screening? Is this affected by the physician's call- in this case the physician is seemingly disregarding it and calling for a new screening since it happened and was not followed up by a more definitive test? I think insurance will disagree, as they paid already for this patient to have a screening test performed. We have a lot of trouble with this physician's office because they indiscriminately send "Screening" on every case, regardless of existing symptoms.
The positive Cologuard in question was from 16 months ago.
It hasn't been 2 years yet since the initial positive Cologuard and to my knowledge, even the Medicare highest risk screening category isn't less than 2 years... I have searched online to no avail. Does anyone have any information on this scenario? The office is billing this as a screening z12.11 with a secondary dx of R19.5 according to their paperwork but I don't think this is correct and I'm unsure how to back myself up on this stance if questioned.
I code for an Outpatient Surgery facility and have a question regarding a Positive Cologuard patient. The patient in question has BCBS insurance and the physician has noted that "This visit is a screening due to no current active symptoms and a previous positive Cologuard that was never followed up on".
I know that a positive Cologuard indicates that the "Screening" isn't really a screening anymore, it becomes diagnostic due to the Cologuard using up that screening benefit and becoming an active sign and symptom of it's own...but in a case like this one, how long does that "positive" disqualify the patient from a screening? Is this affected by the physician's call- in this case the physician is seemingly disregarding it and calling for a new screening since it happened and was not followed up by a more definitive test? I think insurance will disagree, as they paid already for this patient to have a screening test performed. We have a lot of trouble with this physician's office because they indiscriminately send "Screening" on every case, regardless of existing symptoms.
The positive Cologuard in question was from 16 months ago.
It hasn't been 2 years yet since the initial positive Cologuard and to my knowledge, even the Medicare highest risk screening category isn't less than 2 years... I have searched online to no avail. Does anyone have any information on this scenario? The office is billing this as a screening z12.11 with a secondary dx of R19.5 according to their paperwork but I don't think this is correct and I'm unsure how to back myself up on this stance if questioned.