katcoder
Guest
A bariatric surgeon performs gastric bypass surgery and bills the claim with POS 21 (inpatient). While the patient was on the table, she was noted to have a ventral and hiatal hernia that needed to be repaired. The bariatric surgeon called in a general surgeon for the repair.
The general surgeon also bills their claim with POS 21 (inpatient). The general surgeon’s claim was denied because there was no preauthorization. But there would not have been a preauthorization because it was not known in advance; it was found out while the patient was on the table having bariatric surgery.
In this instance, should the general surgeon bill with POS 22 (outpatient) because it does not require an authorization and will be paid?
Any help on this is greatly appreciated!!
The general surgeon also bills their claim with POS 21 (inpatient). The general surgeon’s claim was denied because there was no preauthorization. But there would not have been a preauthorization because it was not known in advance; it was found out while the patient was on the table having bariatric surgery.
In this instance, should the general surgeon bill with POS 22 (outpatient) because it does not require an authorization and will be paid?
Any help on this is greatly appreciated!!
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