My (GI) doctor saw a patient for pre-op, but the EKG portion was denied. I billed the visit
V72.84 and another code for the reason for surgery. My office manager insists that I change it to sepial myocardial infarction and I high disagree.
First the patient saw the doctor for pre-op, not her myocardial infarction.
Second if thats correct, that I can use myovardial infarction, why would a GI doctor be performing that?
Third, the above patient has MCR, so no matter what I use its going to be denied.
Can anyone please give me evidence that pre-op is to be used?
V72.84 and another code for the reason for surgery. My office manager insists that I change it to sepial myocardial infarction and I high disagree.
First the patient saw the doctor for pre-op, not her myocardial infarction.
Second if thats correct, that I can use myovardial infarction, why would a GI doctor be performing that?
Third, the above patient has MCR, so no matter what I use its going to be denied.
Can anyone please give me evidence that pre-op is to be used?