I need some opinions please. My doctor wants to use 28436 but he's not treating a fracture. The patient's dx is 715.97. All I'm coming up with is an unlisted code. Here's the main part of the report:
The ankle joint was evaluated under flouroscopic image intensification allowing for visualization of the osteochondral defect of the central lateral aspect of the talar dome and underlying bony structure. At this time, a percutaneous 0.062-inch K-wire was driven from anterior to posterior with multiple passes across the area of defect. This was again carried out from the lateral aspect of the ankle mortise from lateral to medial with multiple passes across the defect in hopes of neovascularization as well as refreshing this area and creating acute injury, which will stimulate healing of the underlying bony and cartilaginous tissues. The patient's site was then dressed with 4 x 4, 4-inch roll bandage and 4-inch Ace bandage.
The ankle joint was evaluated under flouroscopic image intensification allowing for visualization of the osteochondral defect of the central lateral aspect of the talar dome and underlying bony structure. At this time, a percutaneous 0.062-inch K-wire was driven from anterior to posterior with multiple passes across the area of defect. This was again carried out from the lateral aspect of the ankle mortise from lateral to medial with multiple passes across the defect in hopes of neovascularization as well as refreshing this area and creating acute injury, which will stimulate healing of the underlying bony and cartilaginous tissues. The patient's site was then dressed with 4 x 4, 4-inch roll bandage and 4-inch Ace bandage.