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PLAIDMAN

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My doc planned an arthroscopic ocd lesion repair.........he could not get into the joint due to some large spurs on talus and tibia...........so he did open arthrotomy removed spurs and then proceeded with arthrosocpic repair.

Would you charge both open & scope OR would you put 22 on ocd repair????

THANKS
 
Dear plaidman...

I would suggest billing the open code as directed by CMS etc. and use the 22 if warrented, and use the laporotomy converted to open ICD code.
 
So he ultimately did the procedure through the scope right? I would say the arthrotomy is not billable as he did that simply for exposure to the joint-at least that is what I get from your post.
 
cpccpma said:
So he ultimately did the procedure through the scope right? I would say the arthrotomy is not billable as he did that simply for exposure to the joint-at least that is what I get from your post.
Click to expand...

correct.......the arthrotomy was done in order to be able to get into the joint to fix lesion.

the procedure was done and completed via scope

I think I will just charge scope w/ 22
 
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