ammontagano
Guru
Can anybody explain the difference between 836.0/836.1 (current tears) and 717.2/717.43 (old derangement of meniscus). Is there a time frame that changes the dx code to an old tear?
I see what you are saying Mary - but I am wondering, I use the 836 series codes when it is a recent injury. But when it comes to an injury that occurred say 2 years ago I am using the 717.X series. Are you saying that you would still use the injury codes?
glad to hear everyone wondering about this one! As a new coder, i was very frustated by this and asked again and again and no one could really say when it is considered old and when it is new. I code them now as old unless they happened very recently, say a week. If you are going to be "dinged" for it, as someone mentioned above, doesn't there need to be a reference to refer to that you are violating? A guideline?
#2 05-28-2009, 10:06 AM
mbort
True Blue Join Date: Apr 2007
Location: ENGLEWOOD/DENVER
Posts: 1,997
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I was always taught that you always code current tear (836.0/836.1) unless the surgeon specifically states that it is a degenerative tear(717.X series).
I had a real hard time doing this for many years and argued and argued, and was noncompliant with what I had learned because I didnt want to give the patient an "injury" diagnosis...then one day....I was DINGED in an audit!!
The example given was basically stating that if you always code degenerative, you are giving the patient a dx/disease they may or may not have.
Hope this helps,
Mary, CPC, COSC
I know this is an older thread but to through my two cents in what if the doc reports medial meniscus tear and also has underlying degenerative arthritic changes in medial compartment.
so now we have both.....do we post both???