lizzyjohnson92
New
Hi all. I am new to obstetrics billing. And now confronted with billing transfer out OB patients. This is my question. If a doctor voluntarily leaves practice A to go to Practice B and the patients follow suit because they want to stay with the same doctor in midst of pregnancy, just at a different location. How does that work? I can't seem to find anything in guidelines or research that specifically speaks on that. The patient would be under the care of the same provider/ NPI from beginning to end, but a different TAX ID number for the practice location. Same doctor/ same insurance/ different location. Am I correct in that Practice A has no grounds to be billing for antepartum only care because the patients are under the care of the same doctor?