There is a debate in our office and we need some clarification.
We are all in agreement that under-coding is just as much considered to be fraudulent as over-coding. However, what if the provider wants to not bill for a procedure that he clearly dictates and is billable, is that fraudulent?
Any input would be greatly appreciated.
We are all in agreement that under-coding is just as much considered to be fraudulent as over-coding. However, what if the provider wants to not bill for a procedure that he clearly dictates and is billable, is that fraudulent?
Any input would be greatly appreciated.