trinalankford
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I know this has been beat to death, but there are still questions.
My doc performs several colonoscopies per week (he is a general surgeon). The majority of these are straight screening, i.e., referred from another office for screening. These patients come into the office before the procedure (sometimes several weeks to months) to discuss the procedure with our nurse, get instructions for prep, etc., and this is a "no charge" visit.
HOWEVER, if the patient discloses during this interview with our nurse that he/she has had SYMPTOMS and not just requesting screening, does this still constitute screening? I'm under the impression that the minute the patient made mention of symptoms, "screening" is no longer accurate.
I'm also under the impression that any patient referred for STRAIGHT SCREENING COLONOSCOPY (no symptoms, no family history, no personal history of polyps) cannot be charged for an E/M visit with the physician. If the screening patient has a personal history of polyps, can he/she be charged for an E/M with physician?
In addition, any patients referred for colonoscopy to our office who actually have symptoms, i.e.., rectal bleeding, anemia, etc., we are scheduling them with the surgeon for the "preop" visit, to verify that is what he wants to do, and charging an E/M visit code with symptoms as diagnosis code. The colonoscopy is then scheduled at this visit. Is this not correct? Should we actually NOT be charging them an E/M?
Bottom line....Can we EVER charge an E/M before a colonoscopy? Screening colonoscopy? Diagnostic colonoscopy? There is so much information out there regarding this, but a lot of it is definitely contradictory. Because this is a bulk of our everyday business, we need to get this clarified ASAP.
I have read every post on this forum about this, and I do appreciate everyone's help.
Thank you.
Trina
My doc performs several colonoscopies per week (he is a general surgeon). The majority of these are straight screening, i.e., referred from another office for screening. These patients come into the office before the procedure (sometimes several weeks to months) to discuss the procedure with our nurse, get instructions for prep, etc., and this is a "no charge" visit.
HOWEVER, if the patient discloses during this interview with our nurse that he/she has had SYMPTOMS and not just requesting screening, does this still constitute screening? I'm under the impression that the minute the patient made mention of symptoms, "screening" is no longer accurate.
I'm also under the impression that any patient referred for STRAIGHT SCREENING COLONOSCOPY (no symptoms, no family history, no personal history of polyps) cannot be charged for an E/M visit with the physician. If the screening patient has a personal history of polyps, can he/she be charged for an E/M with physician?
In addition, any patients referred for colonoscopy to our office who actually have symptoms, i.e.., rectal bleeding, anemia, etc., we are scheduling them with the surgeon for the "preop" visit, to verify that is what he wants to do, and charging an E/M visit code with symptoms as diagnosis code. The colonoscopy is then scheduled at this visit. Is this not correct? Should we actually NOT be charging them an E/M?
Bottom line....Can we EVER charge an E/M before a colonoscopy? Screening colonoscopy? Diagnostic colonoscopy? There is so much information out there regarding this, but a lot of it is definitely contradictory. Because this is a bulk of our everyday business, we need to get this clarified ASAP.
I have read every post on this forum about this, and I do appreciate everyone's help.
Thank you.
Trina