MD Performed regular LE angio with SFA atherectomy but then noticed a perforation:
Complications: Small perforation (contained at the site of the atherectomy) treated with long balloon iniflation followed by stent and again balloon inflation for up to 10 mins.
Procedure:
"....injection showed that there was some perforation right at the point of the atherectomy but this well contatined. 5.0 x 60 mm long balloon was used to tack the perforation and left inflated for aboout 5 mins. After 3 separate 5 mins inflations there was still small leakage at the site of the atherectomy device. At this time it was decided to stent the distal right SFA with a Protege Stent which was self expanding followed by ballon angioplasty. Final angiogram reveals still small leakage, hence additional balloon inflation of the stent site was performed. At the end, a bedside duplex scan confirmed that there was no perforation and the stent was well opposed."
My question is, does this constitute a mod 22?
Thoughts?
Thanks
Complications: Small perforation (contained at the site of the atherectomy) treated with long balloon iniflation followed by stent and again balloon inflation for up to 10 mins.
Procedure:
"....injection showed that there was some perforation right at the point of the atherectomy but this well contatined. 5.0 x 60 mm long balloon was used to tack the perforation and left inflated for aboout 5 mins. After 3 separate 5 mins inflations there was still small leakage at the site of the atherectomy device. At this time it was decided to stent the distal right SFA with a Protege Stent which was self expanding followed by ballon angioplasty. Final angiogram reveals still small leakage, hence additional balloon inflation of the stent site was performed. At the end, a bedside duplex scan confirmed that there was no perforation and the stent was well opposed."
My question is, does this constitute a mod 22?
Thoughts?
Thanks
