Our cytotech is processing a routine screening (V76.2) pap smear (88142 or 88145) of a pre-menopausal patient, and sees "no endometrial cells". Is that a valid reason for the pathologist to examine and interpret (88141) this specimen? I've looked at CAP and ASCP sites for guidelines, but haven't seen this on either. If you have any specific documentation on this question, please quote it!