twizzle
Guest
For a period of time earlier this year, when billing for a particularly demanding orthopedic group, I took it upon myself to bill 29877 (chondroplasty) rather than 29880 or 29881, when a meniscectomy was performed with a chondroplasty. 29877 pays more.
Would this be considered 'abuse"? I know it's not fraud. I mean, they are doing both procedures but a meniscectomy includes chondroplasty when performed, so am I inappropriately gaining extra revenue when billing this way?
My colleague thinks so (she has coded orthopedics way longer than me) and in the end I just billed the meniscectomy.
In addition, the G0289 code also confuses me. Why create another code, albeit a HCPCS code, to effectively override what CPT says? I know not all payers recognize this G code and I gave up billing it a long time ago because it wasn't getting paid.
This demanding orthopedic group were of the opinion that everything should be billed regardless of bundling issues, and see what sticks.
I look forward to feedback from anyone who bills the 29877 instead of the 29880/1 for the reasons I did, or from anyone who knows if this is inappropriate coding and has documentation to prove it or otherwise.
One other thing. For Workers Comp, one of these orthopedists wanted 29880/1 and 29877 unbundled and billed together. Is that fraudulent?
Would this be considered 'abuse"? I know it's not fraud. I mean, they are doing both procedures but a meniscectomy includes chondroplasty when performed, so am I inappropriately gaining extra revenue when billing this way?
My colleague thinks so (she has coded orthopedics way longer than me) and in the end I just billed the meniscectomy.
In addition, the G0289 code also confuses me. Why create another code, albeit a HCPCS code, to effectively override what CPT says? I know not all payers recognize this G code and I gave up billing it a long time ago because it wasn't getting paid.
This demanding orthopedic group were of the opinion that everything should be billed regardless of bundling issues, and see what sticks.
I look forward to feedback from anyone who bills the 29877 instead of the 29880/1 for the reasons I did, or from anyone who knows if this is inappropriate coding and has documentation to prove it or otherwise.
One other thing. For Workers Comp, one of these orthopedists wanted 29880/1 and 29877 unbundled and billed together. Is that fraudulent?