gina_marie
Contributor
I have a question - I tried to google it but can't seem to find anything concrete.
A physician that I do billing for sees patient's in the hospital. He is the one that signs the charts, sees the patients. Apparently, he is part of a "group" of physicians that see patients that are admitted to the local hospital. Sometimes, they ask me to bill the charges under his wife's name (who is also a physician) because she is the "Head" of the group that sees the patients. I always put his name as the physician though because he is the one that signs off and sees the patient.
Earlier, his office manager calls me and tells me "It is perfectly legal to bill under <doctor name> because she is the head of the group...". Does anyone know if this is true? I told her I would like to see that in writing and she told me she would have the physician call me when he came into the office. I haven't found a good resource that I can use to prove I am correct, so maybe I am not? If anyone has any insight on this, it would be greatly appreciated!
Thanks.
A physician that I do billing for sees patient's in the hospital. He is the one that signs the charts, sees the patients. Apparently, he is part of a "group" of physicians that see patients that are admitted to the local hospital. Sometimes, they ask me to bill the charges under his wife's name (who is also a physician) because she is the "Head" of the group that sees the patients. I always put his name as the physician though because he is the one that signs off and sees the patient.
Earlier, his office manager calls me and tells me "It is perfectly legal to bill under <doctor name> because she is the head of the group...". Does anyone know if this is true? I told her I would like to see that in writing and she told me she would have the physician call me when he came into the office. I haven't found a good resource that I can use to prove I am correct, so maybe I am not? If anyone has any insight on this, it would be greatly appreciated!
Thanks.