Hi all-
This is the first time I've seen this kind of case, and I could use a little help. Patient is a 57-year-old male with history of a previous "inguinal procedure" - details of which are unavailable per dictation. There was a concern for an inguinal testicle. "Open exploration of the inguinal canal revealed absolutely no inguinal contents." A 54530 is what was authorized, but I don't think I can use that now. Intraop inguinal u/s was also performed to confirm absence of contents.
Does anyone have any direction where I should go with this?
Thank you!!!
This is the first time I've seen this kind of case, and I could use a little help. Patient is a 57-year-old male with history of a previous "inguinal procedure" - details of which are unavailable per dictation. There was a concern for an inguinal testicle. "Open exploration of the inguinal canal revealed absolutely no inguinal contents." A 54530 is what was authorized, but I don't think I can use that now. Intraop inguinal u/s was also performed to confirm absence of contents.
Does anyone have any direction where I should go with this?
Thank you!!!