Gemini18
Expert
I am really stumped on this one; I've seen this multiple times:
I have a physician (Dr. A) who seen a patient on 2/8/2010 -- he writes a discharge summary for 2/9/2010 (99238). Assuming the patient is going home on 2/9/2010. The patient is still in the hospital. Another physician (Dr. B) sees the patient on 2/9/2010 and does a subsequent inpatient E/M (99232).
I asked Dr. A why did he bill a discharge, the patient is still in the hospital. He says because he's rotation ended on 2/9/2010 -- thats what he suppose to bill. He has been doing this at least 3 times that I know of.
My question to ANYBODY - Is this incorrect? What am I suppose to do?
I have a physician (Dr. A) who seen a patient on 2/8/2010 -- he writes a discharge summary for 2/9/2010 (99238). Assuming the patient is going home on 2/9/2010. The patient is still in the hospital. Another physician (Dr. B) sees the patient on 2/9/2010 and does a subsequent inpatient E/M (99232).
I asked Dr. A why did he bill a discharge, the patient is still in the hospital. He says because he's rotation ended on 2/9/2010 -- thats what he suppose to bill. He has been doing this at least 3 times that I know of.
My question to ANYBODY - Is this incorrect? What am I suppose to do?