LLRodgers
Guest
I have a patient that on 6/18/15 the diagnosis was
1. Subacute medial malleolar avulsion fracture
2. Peroneal Tendon Subluxation
On 7/2/15 the Diagnosis was 1. Bone bruise of medial malleolus, old ossification center 2. Subluxation of the peroneal tendon. No mention of the fracture
On 7/8/15 the diagnosis was 1. Peoneal tendionpathy 2. Sanpping peroneal tendon
I coded a fracture care on the first visit, should I have coded the fracture separate with a fracture care code an then the subluxation with a straight e/m code?
Since there is no mention of a fracture now can I start using a straight E/M code?
Thank you,
LLR
1. Subacute medial malleolar avulsion fracture
2. Peroneal Tendon Subluxation
On 7/2/15 the Diagnosis was 1. Bone bruise of medial malleolus, old ossification center 2. Subluxation of the peroneal tendon. No mention of the fracture
On 7/8/15 the diagnosis was 1. Peoneal tendionpathy 2. Sanpping peroneal tendon
I coded a fracture care on the first visit, should I have coded the fracture separate with a fracture care code an then the subluxation with a straight e/m code?
Since there is no mention of a fracture now can I start using a straight E/M code?
Thank you,
LLR