kathy a
Guru
I have a dilemma.What would the proper way to code this.A physician sent over a consult to our orthopaedic physician.This patient was diagnosed with a fracture of the proximal humerus.Our physician saw the patient for the fracture and assumed the fracture care.The treatment for this fracture is a sling.He told the patient to follow up in three weeks and ordered a different sling for the patient.The patient has Highmark insurance.The consult was billed at #99243-25,the fracture care at #26600-RT.The mother called in and complained about the bill.She states that the physician did nothing for her daughter,and wasn't happy about bill due to she has a high deductible.Should there have been a modifier on the #26600-RT for post operative care only.Would it be better to charge the patient for individual visits instead?What is the correct way to code this?
Also we had a patient who had her leg fixed in another state, but had our physician do her care when she was here for college.![Confused :confused: :confused:](data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///yH5BAEAAAAALAAAAAABAAEAAAIBRAA7)
Also we had a patient who had her leg fixed in another state, but had our physician do her care when she was here for college.