A patient is inpatient for a week at Hospital A. Her physician orders her to be tranferred to a different hospital that is better capable to handle her required tests and treatment.
That same physician charges an initial hospital visit (99222-25) at Hospital B on the same date as as he charges a subsequent hospital visit (99232) at Hospital A prior to the transfer.
this is unbundled/ duplicate, isn't it?
should/could he have just billed subsequent (99232) on day 2 at Hospital B and nothing on day 1 at hospital B?
That same physician charges an initial hospital visit (99222-25) at Hospital B on the same date as as he charges a subsequent hospital visit (99232) at Hospital A prior to the transfer.
this is unbundled/ duplicate, isn't it?
should/could he have just billed subsequent (99232) on day 2 at Hospital B and nothing on day 1 at hospital B?