cchriste
Guest
Help!
I'm trying to stand my ground on a work issue and want more opinions. I have always thought that if a patient is est and has a px that has a global period (including preop) the same day, and has nothing else addressed at the office visit that I should ONLY bill for the px. Example, est pt comes in to see the provider and has an office visit and ends up getting wart destruction with liquid nitrogen. No other dx's addressed at the visit. Wouldn't I only bill 17110? Or would I be able to bill say 99213-25 and 17110. I feel this is unbundling to bill both but have had a provider and some coders say I can bill both. I need to know if this is uncompliant to bill both, or if it truly IS compliant and just likely won't reimburse. Opinions please! Thank you.
I'm trying to stand my ground on a work issue and want more opinions. I have always thought that if a patient is est and has a px that has a global period (including preop) the same day, and has nothing else addressed at the office visit that I should ONLY bill for the px. Example, est pt comes in to see the provider and has an office visit and ends up getting wart destruction with liquid nitrogen. No other dx's addressed at the visit. Wouldn't I only bill 17110? Or would I be able to bill say 99213-25 and 17110. I feel this is unbundling to bill both but have had a provider and some coders say I can bill both. I need to know if this is uncompliant to bill both, or if it truly IS compliant and just likely won't reimburse. Opinions please! Thank you.