BlakeCarswell82
Guru
I work for a pathology lab. We are being asked to call specimens a punch excision instead of a punch biopsy to correlate with the client's verbiage so they can code for an excision versus a biopsy. To meet the criteria of being a skin excision, the CPT book says, "An excision is defined as full-thickness (through the dermis) removal of a lesion, including margins, and includes simple (non-layered) closure when performed."
Our pathologists sometimes do not see the subcutaneous fat that proves the excision/biopsy is through the dermis, thus the criteria for "excision" is not met. However, the client's intent is to go through the dermis and, sometimes, the fat does not want to hang on as well with a punch procedure as with a scalpel procedure.
Do Medicare and other payers pay attention to the pathology report's verbiage and will anyone get in trouble in an audit if our verbiage does not match theirs. Also, can we document that the specimen is indeed an excision based on their intent, even though it does not necessarily meet our objective criteria?
Our pathologists sometimes do not see the subcutaneous fat that proves the excision/biopsy is through the dermis, thus the criteria for "excision" is not met. However, the client's intent is to go through the dermis and, sometimes, the fat does not want to hang on as well with a punch procedure as with a scalpel procedure.
Do Medicare and other payers pay attention to the pathology report's verbiage and will anyone get in trouble in an audit if our verbiage does not match theirs. Also, can we document that the specimen is indeed an excision based on their intent, even though it does not necessarily meet our objective criteria?