erjones147
Guest
Diabetic patient with known retinopathy presents for a blood sugar check and med refills. New FNP insists on only coding 250.02 instead of 250.52, saying that since the patient was not complaining of retinopathy issues for that visit, 250.52 is not appropriate
My understanding is that when diabetes is known to have a permanent manifestation, the combo code must always stay in effect
Guideline 1.A.6 seems to side with me, but is it clear that the combo code should be used when the manifestation is not the reason for the visit? My argument is that it does not matter if the manifestation is present, since it is permanently associated with the diabetes
Anything in writing out there that confirms either of our viewpoints?
My understanding is that when diabetes is known to have a permanent manifestation, the combo code must always stay in effect
Guideline 1.A.6 seems to side with me, but is it clear that the combo code should be used when the manifestation is not the reason for the visit? My argument is that it does not matter if the manifestation is present, since it is permanently associated with the diabetes
Anything in writing out there that confirms either of our viewpoints?