Question! Patient is 59 and has a commercial Blue Cross plan - no diabetes, PVD, etc. New pt came into the office for a corn and hammertoes on LT 4th and 5th toes - her corn is on the LT 4th toe. I billed the 11055 w/ L84 as the primary diagnosis and of course, insurance denied as not a covered benefit, which is not a surprise. However, my question is since the provider documented that the corn is being caused by the bone of the hammertoe rubbing on her adjacent toe, are we allowed to bill w/ the hammertoe diagnosis as the primary diagnosis? Or pain as primary? Or did I bill correctly w/ the L84 as primary and she gets to pay the bill?
My rationale was: L84 is the current condition she's seeking treatment for which is caused by the M20.42 - so the L84 goes first, right?!
Any input is helpful! Thanks!!
My rationale was: L84 is the current condition she's seeking treatment for which is caused by the M20.42 - so the L84 goes first, right?!
Any input is helpful! Thanks!!