tobeornottobeacoder
Networker
I have a general question for anyone that is familiar with general surgery. I have a doctor that did an exploratory lap (49000) and discovered free spillage from the small bowel. The doctor then proceeded to go thru the trocar ports from a previous surgery done 3 days prior to allow further drainage from the abscess under the ports which is billed under 49020. I know that 49000 is inclusive to 49020 but can this doctor bill for 49002 along with 49020 because he opened up the previous trocar sites and didnt actually open up a previous laparotomy?
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