coderguy1939
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Patient came in for colonoscopy with pre-op DX of rectal bleeding. Post-operatively, the doctor's DX was Internal Hemorrhoids, likely source of recent rectal bleeding.
Does the word likely preclude using 455.2 as a DX? ICD-9 guidelines includes "likely" as a qualified DX and not to be coded in an out-patient setting. Does the doctor need to definetively state that hemorrhoids are the source of the bleed?
Thanks.
Does the word likely preclude using 455.2 as a DX? ICD-9 guidelines includes "likely" as a qualified DX and not to be coded in an out-patient setting. Does the doctor need to definetively state that hemorrhoids are the source of the bleed?
Thanks.