whitekae
Guest
We've been seeing a lot of patients lately with Medicare Advantage plans asking us to bill their glasses post-cataract surgery. Usually we tell these patients no, because we don't participate in DMERC. However, we've recently been advised by one of these companies that for Medicare Advantage patients, it's not necessary for us to participate in DMERC and that (according to them) we are contractually obligated to bill hardware in this way as participating providers.
The reimbursement rates for these plans are of course absolutely miserable and in general will not come close to recouping our costs, much less allowing us to turn even a modest profit. I am aware that may be some way to bill these without having to write off the entire balance of the claims, but I haven't been able to actually test this and would prefer to avoid it altogether if possible given what a nightmare these plans are to deal with even for simple, straightforward billing. (I will do so if necessary, but we opted out of DMERC for a reason.)
I've thought about it a bit, and I wonder whether or not we are really under contractual obligation to participate in this. Strictly speaking as an optometry clinic, we don't actually have either lenses or frames to sell. When a patient places an order, we purchase the frames from a manufacturer and the lenses from an optical lab. We then resell and dispense to the patient for a profit. It seems to me that we probably can't be contractually obligated to purchase frames and lenses for any patient. Is that just wishful thinking on my part, or could we actually just tell patients we're not participating? For that matter, if we did tell patients we don't participate, would we have any leeway at all to sell them private pay glasses, or would this only be possible if we told the patients to go elsewhere?
The reimbursement rates for these plans are of course absolutely miserable and in general will not come close to recouping our costs, much less allowing us to turn even a modest profit. I am aware that may be some way to bill these without having to write off the entire balance of the claims, but I haven't been able to actually test this and would prefer to avoid it altogether if possible given what a nightmare these plans are to deal with even for simple, straightforward billing. (I will do so if necessary, but we opted out of DMERC for a reason.)
I've thought about it a bit, and I wonder whether or not we are really under contractual obligation to participate in this. Strictly speaking as an optometry clinic, we don't actually have either lenses or frames to sell. When a patient places an order, we purchase the frames from a manufacturer and the lenses from an optical lab. We then resell and dispense to the patient for a profit. It seems to me that we probably can't be contractually obligated to purchase frames and lenses for any patient. Is that just wishful thinking on my part, or could we actually just tell patients we're not participating? For that matter, if we did tell patients we don't participate, would we have any leeway at all to sell them private pay glasses, or would this only be possible if we told the patients to go elsewhere?