Wiki Billing Antepartum visits only

jdibble

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I think I understand this but need to confirm one question.

The scenario is I have an OB patient who after 4 visits was transferred to another practice due to a high risk pregnancy. So, I would use code 59425 only to bill for these 4 visits, correct? Now my confusion is, the initial date of service was 3/29/13 and the last date was 6/14/13. Which date do I bill this code under? The office has been sending me charge slips with the first date of service and I would think it should be the last date the patient was seen.

Could someone just confirm what the correct dates to bill these charges would be? :D

Thanks,
 
Use both dates as a date range. Units 1 and I always reference that this is a transfer of care. You may also need to attach the documentation for the office visits. Or at least keep a copy close on hand should you need them in an appeal process.
 
Use both dates as a date range. Units 1 and I always reference that this is a transfer of care. You may also need to attach the documentation for the office visits. Or at least keep a copy close on hand should you need them in an appeal process.

Thanks for the response. I am actually not sending the claim out - that is done through the billing department. I check the codes on the superbill from the OB office for doctor education, and the superbill has a "date of service" on it. They are sending it to me with the first date the patient is seen, not the last date. There is no way to print these sheets out with a date range, so my question is should it be the last date seen rather than the first date seen for billing purposes. The billing department will be the ones who will enter the date range when sending out the claims.
 
We post our antepartum charges to the last date of service. Most insurance companies want it charged this way, but you will want to check. We have one insurance company that wants a 59425 charged to the 4th dos and a 59426 charged to the 7th dos.

Hope this helps!
 
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