psantilli
Contributor
I code for a general surgery group, therefore I am hoping for some help with this OBGYN question. To make a long story short, one of my surgeons assisted an OBGYN with an emergency C-section. The OBGYN who performed the C-section was covering for the patients regular physician (The two OBGYN's are in the same group). When I called the billing office of that particular OBGYN to ask for the correct codes, so that I could bill for the assitant fee, the billing secretary told me that I could not charge for the assitant fee because she already had. When I asked her to explain - she said: the surgeon fee was charged out under the patients actual doctor, and the assitant was charged out under the name of the doctor that was covering (the doc who actually performed the surgery). So, to be sure I understood correctly, I repeated to her: you charged out a surgical fee under the name of a doctor who was not even present in the O.R., based on the fact that that doctor is the patients primary OBGYN - and you charged an assistant fee for a doctor who performed the primary portion of the procedure?? To which she responded - "that is how this practice does it."
This makes no sense to me......however, again, I do not do any OBGYN billing - therefore I'd like some help with this issue. I'm not understanding why my doctor, who was the ligitimate assitant - cannot charge for the service??
Help please!
This makes no sense to me......however, again, I do not do any OBGYN billing - therefore I'd like some help with this issue. I'm not understanding why my doctor, who was the ligitimate assitant - cannot charge for the service??
Help please!
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