RhondaJohnson
Contributor
Hello,
I have an interesting question, need some opinions. A patient comes in with an AMI. The cardiologist performs a heart cath, enters the 'culprit' vessel, and then aspirates the thrombus restoring blood flow, no further intervention is necessary.
CPT code 92941 reads: Percutaneous transluminal revascularization of acute total/subtotal occlusion during acute myocardial infarction, coronary artery or coronary artery bypass graft, any combination of intracoronary stent, atherectomy and angioplasty, including aspiration thrombectomy when performed, single vessel.
In the situation described above would it be appropriate to bill the 92941 with a modifier -52? Or go with the unlisted code for the aspiration thrombectomy 93799?
I have an interesting question, need some opinions. A patient comes in with an AMI. The cardiologist performs a heart cath, enters the 'culprit' vessel, and then aspirates the thrombus restoring blood flow, no further intervention is necessary.
CPT code 92941 reads: Percutaneous transluminal revascularization of acute total/subtotal occlusion during acute myocardial infarction, coronary artery or coronary artery bypass graft, any combination of intracoronary stent, atherectomy and angioplasty, including aspiration thrombectomy when performed, single vessel.
In the situation described above would it be appropriate to bill the 92941 with a modifier -52? Or go with the unlisted code for the aspiration thrombectomy 93799?