TJAlexander
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Reddit has a forum called AITA; for those of you that know, then you know. Anyway, I need to know if I'm just a horrible coder and biller. The surgeon I work for is an orthopedic surgeon who sometimes works on professional athletes that are hurt during play. The claims for the injuries are adjudicated by the leagues' worker's compensation insurance company. My surgeon insists that I bill these surgeries at upwards of $70K (this for a shoulder arthroscopy) and insists that I'm doing something wrong because we don't actually get paid that amount. We usually get paid according to the state WC Fee schedule or WCIC contractual rate. He tells me that he knows of other practices/surgeons that are able to collect this rate. Am I missing something?
I thought I was handling the situation correctly by billing the appropriate CPT code and diagnosis according to AMA conventions. The billed amount is usually 150 to 300% of Medicare/WC Fee Schedulee. Should I be doing something differently?
I thought I was handling the situation correctly by billing the appropriate CPT code and diagnosis according to AMA conventions. The billed amount is usually 150 to 300% of Medicare/WC Fee Schedulee. Should I be doing something differently?