When a patient has stable afib and is on appropriate anticoagulation therapy so requires no changes, is this credited as 1 diagnosis point or 2? The provider has been told he would get credit for the questions he asks about the Coumadin so it would be treated as a separate diagnosis. Since it's a treatment for the afib that the provider is managing, I believe it's part of the management of the problem and not given a separate diagnosis point (like insulin for a diabetic). Does anyone have any opinions or guidance on this issue?
Thank you,
Sue
Thank you,
Sue