ALWebster19
New
I am feeling that I am correct on this, however I am new to OBGYN coding so would appreciate if I could get someone with more OBGYN experience to confirm or deny my thought process.
Patient comes in for a DEXA 77080, has annual on same day. I would report 9939X - 25 (NO problems presented by the patient, above and beyond a normal annual). with the 77080? Correct?
The reason I am asking this is typically, when patient comes in for the DEXA, and does not have an annual, they were coding a 9921x -25 (for the review of the DEXA with the patient and necessary counseling if any) and the 77080.
I believe they are feeling that the 99213 should still be billed along with the 9939x or 9938x depending and the 77080. To me that would be over coding.
Am I on the right track with my thinking? I am just questioning myself with being in a new specialty.
Thank you in advance
Patient comes in for a DEXA 77080, has annual on same day. I would report 9939X - 25 (NO problems presented by the patient, above and beyond a normal annual). with the 77080? Correct?
The reason I am asking this is typically, when patient comes in for the DEXA, and does not have an annual, they were coding a 9921x -25 (for the review of the DEXA with the patient and necessary counseling if any) and the 77080.
I believe they are feeling that the 99213 should still be billed along with the 9939x or 9938x depending and the 77080. To me that would be over coding.
Am I on the right track with my thinking? I am just questioning myself with being in a new specialty.
Thank you in advance