fish4codes
Networker
I have a note on an assault victim with multiple wounds (muscle, tendon, artery, bone) bilateral hands. One injury, specifically, the ring finger sustained laceration over distal phalanx with gross contamination, nerve and tendon lacerations and a fracture of the middle phalanx which was treated with ORIF. Is this considered an "open fracture". Surgeon states the soft tissue surrounding the fracture site was intact. AAOS definition of open fractures leads me to think it would be with statements such as, "...open fx is a fx in which there is an open wound or break in the skin "near" the site of the broken bone. "Most" often the wound is caused by a fragment of bone breaking through the skin at the moment of injury". Any guidance is much appreciated!