I have a pt who received prophylactic tx to proximal shaft for malignant lesion in femur.......doc "thinks" it is secondary to lung lesion...however.. no biopsy has been performed on the lung..yet...
pt is inpatient....not sure if i should code the femur lesion as 2ndary lesion ? should i code for lung lesion also, even though no biopsy yet ?
thx for any help
pt is inpatient....not sure if i should code the femur lesion as 2ndary lesion ? should i code for lung lesion also, even though no biopsy yet ?
thx for any help