Question: Also, even if we get a negative in the office, the providers are going to send to an outside lab for verification of the negative anyway. At this point, would the diagnosis remain the same, and would the codes not be the same since it would still be considered a qualitative d/t negative results? I think this will lead to insurance denials for duplicate billing. How should I report this? Answer: In addition, American Congress of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) does not recommend routine drug testing but rather drug screening consisting of a questionnaire about drug use (and alcohol use). If a problem is identified, the provider refers her to treatment. Per a Committee Opinion, "Physicians have an ethical obligation to learn and use techniques for universal screening questions, brief intervention, and referral to treatment in order to provide patients and their families with medical care that is state-of-the-art, comprehensive, and effective for drug use." Now even if you have her consent, you are still doing this on all patients whether you suspect drug use or not. Therefore, this is a screening. That means this is questionable as to whether you can call this routine antepartum screening since ACOG does not recommend such routine testing. The only code that really applies is V70.3 (Other general medical examination for administrative purposes) which may get the service denied by the payer. If the test result is negative, you no longer have medical justification for repeating the test. No payer is going to pay for two identical screening tests without medical need being established for the specific patient. If you have reason to suspect drug use or you have a history of drug use, then your diagnosis code can change to something else, like 648.3x (Drug dependence complicating pregnancy childbirth or the puerperium) if she is taking drugs, or possibly a V23 code if she has a history of drug use in her last pregnancy. ICD-10: