Ob-Gyn Coding Alert

Coding Quiz:

Pinpoint The Most Accurate Postmenopausal Abnormality Diagnosis Code

Here’s how to tell the difference between osteoporosis and osteopenia.

Denials giving you hot flashes? Test yourself with this three-part postmenopausal abnormality scenario challenge.

Background: >Menopause is the normal physiologic cessation of menstruation that occurs as a woman ages because the ovaries stop producing estrogen and the reproductive system gradually shuts down. This process, which has an average age of onset at 50.5 years, usually takes approximately one year to complete, but it may last anywhere from six months to more than five years. 

Your ob-gyn may see a perimenopausal patient for any number of conditions, including vaginal dryness, erratic or scanty menstrual cycles, or vaginal atrophy. Consequently, you should be aware of the conditions that can occur during this phase of a woman’s life. 

Fill in These Blanks Using Your ICD-10 Book

Question 1: >Your ob-gyn sees a postmenopausal patient with an inflamed vagina because the tissues are thinning and shrinking. The ob-gyn notes decreased vaginal wall lubrication. This patient is experiencing vaginal soreness and itching, painful intercourse, and bleeding after intercourse. The ob-gyn diagnoses the patient with _________, and you should report this with _________. >

Question 2: >Your ob-gyn sees a postmenopausal patient with unusual or abnormal vaginal bleeding. You should report _________. 

Question 3: >Because _________ occurs more frequently in postmenopausal women, your ob-gyn assesses and treats this bone disease. You should report it with _________.

Think you know the answers? Click here to know the Answers.


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